this post was submitted on 22 Nov 2024
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[–] freeman@sh.itjust.works -1 points 2 days ago (1 children)

Probably. My point is that I was very confused by the original claim (officials deciding whether people are jewish or not) and the following comments drawing comparisons to Nazi Germany.

OP's claim was that official call anti-zionist Jews 'allegedly Jewish' (ostensibly actually, a synonym) and that they decided if they are "bad" or "good" Jews. It seems obvious to me from the choice of words as well as the punctuation he is not referring to official acts but bias of the official. Which may well affect their official decisions.

If it’s not relevant, then why quote it? In any case it tells me something about the quality of the article.

Are the communities not the ones referred to by the commissioner in his defense? That makes them relevant. If the article is wrong that you have to be part of such a community to be "officially" Jewish it's irrelevant, the issue is that the commissioner tried to defend his position by appealing to them.

You are much quicker to attack the OP, the article, me than the commissioner.

[–] homoludens@feddit.org 3 points 2 days ago* (last edited 2 days ago)

You are much quicker to attack the OP, the article, me than the commissioner.

OP makes a claim, I asked for a source. That's not an attack.

And how is on the other hand "he is very wrong with this statement (addendum: and in his job)" and "shitty and besides the point of any valid criticism," and "he obviously tried to weasle himself out of his shit take" not an "attack" against the commissioner?

edit: anyway, I have spend enough time on this.