Assuming you're genuinely asking (not always easy to tell on the internet, sorry):

The same way every formerly imperialist country benefits from imperialist legacy. Global economic inequality is neither a coincidence nor the result of some natural order. It's of little benefit if I do a detailed write up on this topic since there's tons of those coming up in a search engine. Here's an example: https://cepr.org/voxeu/columns/economic-impact-colonialism

I know it's not on Germany specifically, but imo it explains the principle quite well. Hope it helps, otherwise, 'does the west still profit from imperialism' was a useful search query for me.