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[-] Papergeist@lemmy.world 22 points 10 months ago

No e^x doesn't have a 'y' and so it also acts as a constant.

[-] ChaoticNeutralCzech@feddit.org 9 points 10 months ago* (last edited 10 months ago)

Oh, I was thinking of it as ๐‘ฆโ€‰= ๐‘’^๐‘ฅ^ or ๐‘ฅโ€‰= ln ๐‘ฆ, whose derivative in respect to ๐‘ฆ is ๐‘ฅโ€‰= 1/๐‘ฆ (for ๐‘ฆโ€‰> 0) or ๐‘ฆโ€‰= 1/๐‘ฅโ€‰(for ๐‘ฅ > 0). Your interpretation is that the ๐‘ฆ-axis is non-existent or named differently, which is why I'd prefer the joke to say d/d๐‘ก for less ambiguity, as @anothercatgirl suggested.

[-] anothercatgirl@lemmy.blahaj.zone 2 points 10 months ago

yayaya, or in other cases like multiple independent variables, I'm not sure because it's been 6 years since I took calculus

[-] MOCVD@mander.xyz 2 points 10 months ago

The general form would be implicit differentiation! d/dx dx/dy e^x = e^x dx/dy

this post was submitted on 08 Nov 2025
618 points (99.0% liked)

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