this post was submitted on 28 Jan 2024
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[–] underisk@lemmy.ml -3 points 10 months ago (1 children)

If a world war can only exist between nuclear powers then does the first one (and most of the second) not count?

[–] Urist@lemmy.ml 3 points 9 months ago (1 children)

No, but a conflict pretty much has to include major powers to escalate to a world war and the major powers coincide with the nuclear powers either directly or peripherally. I get the sense that you are arguing in bad faith here.

[–] underisk@lemmy.ml 1 points 9 months ago (1 children)

It can involve the nuclear powers without them being in direct, overt conflict with each other. I'm not arguing in bad faith; I genuinely believe that your definition of "World War" is remarkably narrow and I feel I've been pretty consistent about trying to lay out my reasoning for that.

[–] Urist@lemmy.ml 3 points 9 months ago (1 children)

Proxy wars historically have never constituted world wars by any account.

[–] underisk@lemmy.ml 1 points 9 months ago (1 children)

Neither has it's participants' nuclear capable status.

[–] Urist@lemmy.ml 3 points 9 months ago (1 children)

Yes, that is vacuously true. If it stops being so, recorded history will end.

[–] underisk@lemmy.ml -1 points 9 months ago (1 children)

If all the nuclear powers aligned against all the non-nuclear states and waged a war of extermination against them, that would, by your terms, not qualify as a "World War".

[–] Urist@lemmy.ml 2 points 9 months ago