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Israel appears to be in breach of ICJ orders on Gaza, senior UN official says.
(amp.theguardian.com)
this post was submitted on 10 Feb 2024
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Honestly, what gives? The language you are quoting here is neither from the article nor from the ICJ order.
The ICJ order did not require Israel to take a single affirmative step other than to provide a status report on or before February 23rd, as this article mentions in the second paragraph.
As a lawyer that as read the order, it's you that is misrepresenting it not "western media."
Direct quote from: https://www.icj-cij.org/sites/default/files/case-related/192/192-20240126-ord-01-00-en.pdf
Tell me again how you're a lawyer who read the order lol. But we've seen again and again how Israel operatives lie to justify their fascist regime and their genocide.
Yes the language in that first paragraph about the Genocide Convention was left out of the Guardian articl and the person above, who purported to quote the order, but at least used an ellipses to indicate the omission, unlike the Guardian.
This part of the order (P79) refers only to killings to which are barred under the Genocide Conventions, not the mere killing of any Palestinian, which is what OP, you, and the Guardian article falsely implied.
P79 is another good example. You've quoted it here presumably to argue that "see, Israel does have to take affirmative steps." Here Israel must prosecute people for war crimes and incitement to genocide. Well, you're ignoring the part of the order that finds Israel is already doing that, and they are.
80 and 81, same thing. Israel is already in compliance, at least that's what they will argue and provide evidence of in their status report due to the ICJ on February 23.
E: If only down voting me could make your feelings about what's in the order actually match the order.
You said:
u/LarmyofLone then quoted the order, showing that the language they used was exactly from the order.
Take the L, mate.
Are you dense?
Larmy omitted a key part of the sentence in paragraph 79, which is the paragraph the original news story was paraphrasing. Both Larmy and the Guardian's omission gave a misleading impression that the ICJ ordered Israel not to kill any more Palestinians.
Obviously, that's not what the order said.
The actual text:
The paraphrasing:
It looks like the only difference here is changing "take all measures within its power to prevent the commission of", to "desist from the commission of", which is fairly reasonable and doesn't change the meaning, since "desist" alone can be taken to mean "refrain from" or "cease".
So yes, I must be dense, because I still can't see how your accusation of changing the language holds water. Also, it seems to be para. 78 we're dealing with, not 79, whose subject is incitement.
You're still missing the key difference. Right, 78.
This is the language that was omitted:
Israel cannot kill Palestinians in violation of the Genocide Convention. No kidding?
That's not the same as saying Israel cannot kill any Palestinians.
Then that's what LarmyofLone said. "Within the scope of the convention." Why can't you back down mate? It'll be good for you. We all make mistakes.
Nah go back further to Larmy's initial comment and the Guardian article linked at the top of this post. Larmy's second post too leaves out the word "Genocide Convention" and just says "convention."
Both altered the text of the actual order to make it appear as though Israel was ordered not to kill any Palestinians, and they did it on purpose to make Israel look like it is violating the order.
It's always illegal by the ICJ standards to kill people in violation of the Genocide Convention. It's not always a violation of the Genocide Convention to kill people, though. That's a significant difference.