this post was submitted on 07 Sep 2023
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Why did use of the word "fuck" effectively disappear in print between the years 1800-1950? (zerobytes.monster)
submitted 1 year ago by bOt@zerobytes.monster to c/askhistorians@zerobytes.monster
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The original was posted on /r/askhistorians by /u/embassyrow on 2023-09-07 22:18:50+00:00.

According to Google Ngram, use of the word "fuck" disappeared almost completely starting early in the 1800s up until soon after 1950? Why?

For comparison, the chart above also shows use of "sex" to demonstrate that Ngram isn't just missing data for that time period.

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