aldhissla
joined 11 months ago
Don't be looking for reason in racism. I grew up in Eastern Europe and truth be told, I can't claim to be free of it myself. The story rings believable to me...
Fuck
Just lost the game
Running that LLM on an organic potato, I see...
Nothing above Turing-completeness (if even that) is strictly necessary. But as OP had pointed out in other comments, pronouns have a practical use.
Nah, it's just a single differentiation between people and non-persons, e.g. him vs that.
There are gender-free languages that still make this distinction, e.g. Hungarian ő vs az.
To add to the subject of complexity, in English you have 3 genders, 2 numbers (singular/plural), and 4 cases, totalling a maximum of 24 pronouns. A gender-free language would just set the first factor to 1. Adding differentiation by e.g. status would increment (in cases of there being one extra formal gender for the 3rd person) or multiply it (when there are different versions for all pronouns).
This question has a false premise and thus makes no sense.
Many natural languages are already genderless, so your question is equivalent to: "In genderless and sexless languages, what are pronouns based on?", implying that there has to be some sort of gender-based polymorphism among pronouns.
I want to see Barclay in an office comedy
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