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aleph
(lemmy.nz)
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this post was submitted on 26 Nov 2025
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Anybody else find it weird how the letter forms changed a bunch in BC and then hardly at all in CE?
Maybe because at that point the Roman Empire controlled most of that part of the world? Also maybe literacy was increasing, requiring more consistency? Then as the Roman Empire declined centuries later different cultures only iterated in their own language? Just some guesses.