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submitted 3 days ago by Jonawan@lemmy.zip to c/world@lemmy.world
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[-] frongt@lemmy.zip 3 points 3 days ago

How do Swedish courts feel about this? I'm sure that in the US this would be overturned on appeal. While he might have caused the crimes to happen, he himself did not commit them. He committed extortion.

If there was a murder, a felony murder rule would mean he could be charged for that, but unless Sweden has laws covering more indirect crimes I don't know how this conviction would stand.

[-] CrimeIsLegalNow@ani.social 3 points 2 days ago

Extortion explicitly makes you culpable.

[-] rollin@piefed.social 2 points 2 days ago

a felony murder rule would mean he could be charged for that

I'm by no means an expert, but there is also a more general legal principle of accomplice liability that could apply in such a case: "Accomplice liability is a legal doctrine that holds a person criminally responsible for a crime they did not directly commit but intentionally assisted, encouraged, or facilitated. This liability is often equal to that of the principal offender".

[-] emigu@lemmy.world 3 points 3 days ago

Apparently there are supreme court decisions on these types of sexual crimes from before (from what swedish public service says) that they used, and further claimed the same rulings should apply to violent crimes. I have no doubt this will be appealed though, and might also go to the supreme court for ruling.

this post was submitted on 18 Sep 2026
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